Book 4 – Nursing Licensure Exam (Practice)
1. A newly graduate nursing student applied at the PRC to take the Philippine Nurses Licensure Examination. To qualify she must possess the following:
1. age must be 21 years old
2. a Filipino citizen
3. graduated from a recognized College of Nursing
4. with good health and with good moral character
a. 1, 2,and 4
b. 1,2, and 3
c. 2, 3, and 4
d. 1,3, and 4
2. In order for the examinee to pass the Philippine Nurses Licensure examination, she must obtain an average of:
1. general average rating of 74.9% that could be round off into 75%
2. genera! average rating of 75% and above
3. rating not below 69% in any subjects
4. rating not below 60% in any subjects
a. 1 and 3
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 4
d. 2 and 4
3. Persons who committed crimes by indirect participation such as assisting in its consummation can be accused of being:
a. an accessory
b. a principal
c. a witness
d. both A and C
4. According to the Annotated Philippine Nursing Act of 2002, the Licensure Members of the Board of Nursing is composed of:
a. A chairperson and six member’s
b. A chairperson and three members
c. Seven members only
d. A chairperson and five members
5. A battery is:
a. An unconsented touching of another person
b. An act that puts the victim in fear of harm to himself
c. Considered only when a harm occurs to the person touched
d. All of the above
6. Miss Montessa applied for the Philippine Nurses’ Board Examination. To qualify she must posses the following:
1. age 21 years old
2. Filipino citizenship
3. graduated from recognized college of nursing
4. good health and good moral character
a. 1 and 2
b. 1,3, and 4
c. 1, 2, and 3
d. 2, 3, and 4
7. A staff nurse must:
1. have at least 2 years experience
2. be single
3. be a Filipino citizen
4. be currently license to practice professional nursing
a. 1 and 2
b. 3 and 4
c. 2 and 3
d. 2 and 4
8. Nurses abroad are very in-demand nowadays. While opportunities may be better abroad, she must serve the country for:
a. 2 years
b. 1 year
c. 6 months
d. as long as she likes ‘
9. The refusal issue a certificate of registration for reasons cited in RA 877 as amended by RA 4704 rests on:
a. Philippine Association of Board Examiners
b. Board of Nursing
c. Professional Regulation Commission ;
d. Legal Division, PRC
10. The law which provides for the use of generic terminology in the promotion, prescription, and dispensing of drugs:
c. RA 7164
d. RA 7877
11. The most effective nursing intervention for a severely anxious client who is pacing vigorously would be to:
a. Instruct her to sit down and quit pacing
b. Place her in bed to reduce stimuli and allow rest
c. Allow her to walk until she becomes physically tired
d. Give her PRN medication and walk with her at a gradually slowing pace
12. Which of the following is accurate about benzodiazepines: ”
a. It act on the cause of diagnosis
b. Used anesthetics, anticonvulsants, and muscle relaxants
c. Has less problem of dependence and withdrawal
d. Started at a high dose then gradually decreased
13. The nurse has been interviewing a client who has not been able to discuss any feelings. This day, 5 minutes before the time is over, the client begins to talk about important feelings. The intervention is to:
a. Go over the agreed-upon time, as the client is finally able to discuss important feelings.
b. Tell the client that it is time to end the session now, but another nurse will discuss his feelings with him.
c. Set at extra meeting time a little later to discuss these feelings.
d. End just as agreed, but tell the client these are very important feelings and he can continue tomorrow.
14. ln working with a depressed client, the nurse should understand that depression is most directly related to a person’s:
a. Experiencing poor interpersonal relationships with other.
b. Remembering his traumatic childhood.
c. Having experienced a sense of loss.
d. Stage in life.
15. Three days after admission for depression, a 54-year-old female client approaches the nurse and says; “I know I have cancer of the uterus. Can’t you let me stay in bed and have some peace before I die?” In responding, the nurse must keep in mind that:
a. The client must be post-menopausal
b. Thoughts of disease are common in depressed clients.
c. Clients suffering from depression can be demanding, making many request of the nurse.
d. Antidepressant medications frequently cause vaginal spotting.
16 A client makes a suicide attempt on the evening shift. The staff intervenes in time to prevent harm. In assessing the situation, the most important rationale for the staff to discuss the incident is that:
a. They need to reenact the attempt so that they understand exactly what happened.
b. The staff needs to file an incident report so that the hospital administration is kept informed.
c. The staff needs to discuss the client’s behavior to determine what cues, in his behavior might have warned them that he was contemplating suicide.
d. Because the client made one suicide attempt, there is high probability he will make a second .attempt in the immediate future
17.A client with the diagnosis of manic episode is racing around the psychiatric unit trying to organize games with the clients. An appropriate nursing intervention is to:
a. Have the client play Ping-Pong.
b. Suggest video exercises with the other clients.
c. Take the client outside for a walk.
d. Do nothing, as organizing a game is considered therapeutic.
18. The primary nurse is performing an admission assessment on a client admitted with pneumonia. When should the nurse begin discharge planning for this client?
a. The day after discharge
b. When the client’s condition is stabilized
c. At the admission time
d. When the physician writes the discharge order
19. A nurse enters a client’s roams and the client is demanding release from the hospital. Tile nurse renews the client’s record and notes that the client was admitted 2 days ago for treatment of an anxiety disorder and that the admission was voluntary. Which of the following actions will the nurse take?
a. Tell the client that discharge is not possible at this time.
b. Call the client’s family
c. Contact the physician
d. Persuade the client to stay a few more days
20.When teaching a patient who has a diagnosis of schizophrenia about successful independent living in the community, a nurse should encourage the patient to:
a. Establish a structured daily routine
b. Spend time alone
c. Ran a program of self-fulfillment
d. Discontinue medication when symptoms disappear
21. A patient who has a borderline personality disorder praise one nurse and asserts that all other staff members are terrible. The praised nurse should respond by:
a. Showing appreciation for the patient’s positive evaluation
b. Providing reassuring information about the patient’s psychological integrity
c. Maintaining objectivity regarding the patient’s remarks
d. Conveying acceptance of the patient’s need for a false belief system
22. The physician orders flouxetine (Prozac) orally every morning for a 72-year-dd a client with depression. The nurse would expect the physician to order which of the following dosages for this client?
a. 0.5 mg
b. 10 mg
c. 25 mg
d. 30 mg
23. A client who is depressed states, “I am an awful person. Everything about me is bad. I can’t do anything right.” Which of the following responses by the nurse would be most therapeutic?
a. “Everybody around here likes you.”
b. “I can see many good qualities about you.” .
c. “Let’s discuss what you haw done correctly.”
d. “You were able to bathe daily.”
24. The nurse denies the request of a dient with major depression and psychotic features, admitted involuntarily, to leave the hospital because commitment papers have been initiated by the physician. Which of the following would the nurse identify as a criterion for the client to be legally committable?
a. Evidence of psychosis
b. Being gravely disabled
c. Risk of harm to self or others
d. Diagnosis of mental illness
25.When preparing a teaching plan for a client about imipranine (Tofranil), which of the following substances will the nurse tell the client to avoid while taking the .medication?
a. Caffeinated coffee
d. Artificial tears
26. A client with bipolar behavior manic phase is exhibiting euphoria, hyperactivlty, and distractibility. He is unable to remain seated during mealtime Song enough to eat adequately. Which of the following “finger foods” would most benefit this client?
a. Bacon, lettuce, and tomato sandwich
c. tee cream cone
d. Cut-up vegetables
27. A client with acute mania has been taking lithium (Lithium Carbonate) 600 mg PO three times daily for 14 days. The nurse analyzes the client’s serum lithium level, noting that it is therapeutic when the level is within which of the following ranges?
a. 0.5 to 1.5mEq/L
c. 2.6 to 3.2 mEq/L
d. 3.3 to 4.0 rnEq/L
28. A patient who has begun taking a tricyclic antidepressant is given instructions regarding its use. Which of the following’ comments would indicate that the patient understands the information?
a. “I like active exercise, but I won’t be able to do it while I’m on this medication.”
b. “This medicine will make my ears ring, but I guess i can tolerate that.”
c. “I won’t eat cheese if one of my visitors bring me some.”
d. “I don’t feel any better, but I’ve only been taking the medicine for a week.”
29. Diazepam (Valium) is prescribed for a patient with Sow back pain. The desired therapeutic action of valiurn in this situation is to:
a. Reduce anxiety levels
b. Eliminate pain sensation
c. Suppress the inflammatory process
d. Lessen muscle spasticity
30. A patient is brought to the psychiatric unit. Which of the following activities the registered nurse rather than the licensed practical nurse would perform?
a. Administering a stat dose of lorazepam (Ativan) 2 mg intramuscularity (IM)
b. Admitting the patient to the psychiatric unit
c. Asking the patient whether he hears voices other people do not hear
d. Drawing a blood sample for a lithium level
31. A client asks to be discharged from the health care facility against medical advice (AMA). What should the nurse do?
a. Prevent the client from leaving
b. Notify the physician
c. Have the client sign an AMA form
d. Call a security guard to help detain the client
32. What is the most common tort filed against health care providers by clients?
33. A nurse is counseling a parent whose 11-year-old child has attention deficit hyperactivity disorder. The parent reports that the child is disruptive at home. Which of the approaches should the nurse suggest that the parent take?
a. Confine the child to the bedroom
b. Establish a specific schedule for activities
c. Explain to the child why the behavior is disturbing
d. Vary the methods by which rewards are given
34. The physician prescribes digoxin 4mg IV. for a client In rapid atrial fibrillation, How should the nurse proceed?
a. Assess the client’s apical rate, then administer the dose.
b. Administer 0.4 mg I.V. because the physician most likely meant to write that dosage
c. Question the physician about that order.
d. Administer the dose, then monitor the client closely.
35. A nurse administers a unit of blood to a client without receiving informed consent. Performing a procedure, such as administering blood products, without receiving informed consent can lead to which of the following charges?
a. Assault and battery
c. Breach of confidentiality
36. A 32-year-old woman is admitted to a psychiatric unit for evaluation after terrorizing her co-worker with a knife. She is verbally .abusive. One afternoon, she starts hitting another female patient without any apparent provocation. The other patient is removed from her presence. Which of the following statements by the nurse would be appropriate handling of the patient’s behavior?
a. “Why did you hit that patient?”
b. “You will have to stay in the seclusion room to keep you away from other patients.”
c. “Hitting others is dangerous. I am not going to allow you to repeat this behavior.”
d. “I am going to discuss your behavior with other patients at the next ward meeting.” .
37. A patient refuses to sit in a chair offered by the nurse during a ward meeting. The patient claims that, “They are trying to destroy me. They have planted a bomb under this chair.” He accuses the nurse as being “one of them.” Which of the following approaches would be most helpful in dealing with patient’s delusional system?
a. Sit on the chair to prove that the chair is safe.
b. Tell the patient, “No one is trying to destroy you and I am certainly not one of those who you think want to kill you.”
c. Allow the patient to select his/her own chair.
d. Ask the patient, “Why do you think anyone would plot to destroy you.”
38. When a pediatric nurse tries to take an admission history on a 3-year-old, the child’s mother burst into tears and cannot answer any questions. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
a. Continue to take the history.
b. Encourage the mother to verbalize her fears concerning her child’s illness.
c. Ask the mother to assist in the admission physical assessment.
d. Ask the mother to join her husband in the waiting room.
39. A patient who is diagnosed with an eating disorder describes herseif as “a very fat person.” Which of the following responses by the nurse would be MOST appropriate?
a. “You don’t look fat at all.”
b “Why do you say you are fat?”
c. “I don’t understand why you think you are fat.”
d. “You seem to think you are fat but \ see you as very thin.”
40. During an acute psychotic episode, patients can become frightened of their own ^ bizarre sensory experiences. They also fear losing control over their own impulses. Which of the following nursing interventions would help a patient to feel less frightened?
a. Assure the patient that his/her sensory experiences wilt disappear, in no time.
b. Let the patient know that the staff will assist him/her in maintaining control.
c. Keep the patient in a well-lighted; stimulating environment at all times.
d. Keep potentially harmful objects out of patient’s reach.
41.When developing the plan of care for a client receiving haloperidol; which of the following medications would the nurse anticipate administering if the client developed extrapyramidat sidejeffiects?
a. Lorazepam (Ativan)
b. Benztripine mesylate (Cogentin)
c. Paroxetine (Paxil)
d. Olanzapine (Zyprexia)
42. Nursing Licensure and Practice are regulated by:
a. Nursing Practice Law
b. Board of Nursing
c. Professional Regulations Commission
d. All of the above
43. While documenting on a client’s patient care flow sheet the nurse notices that she made a mistake? How-should the nurse proceed?
a. Use correction fluid and continue to document
b. Draw a single line through the entry
c. Cross out error completely
d. Erase error
44. Which of the following would be most critical when caring for a client who is experiencing delirium?
a. Controlling behavior symptoms with low-dose psychotropics.
b. Correcting the underlying causative condition or illness.
c. Manipulating the environment to increase orientation.
d. Decreasing or discounting any nonessential medications
45.A client with panic disorder should be monitored for the existence of which of the following other psychosocial problems?
a. Attention deficit hyperacidity disorder (ADHD)
b. Developmental disability
c. Dissociative behavior
d. Substance abuse
46. Which of the following nursing interventions is given priority in a care plan for a person having panic disorder?
a. Tell the client to take deep breaths.
b. Have the client talk about the anxiety.
c. Encourage the client to verbalize feelings.
d. Ask the client about the cause of the attack.
47. Which of the following interventions should the nurse initially implement when caring for a client with panic disorder?
a. Make the client role-play the panic attack.
b. Assist the client to develop an exercise program.
c. Teach the client to identify cognitive distortions.
d. Teach the client to identify sources of anxiety.
48. Which of the following statements is typical of a client with social phobia?
a. “Without people around, I just feel so lost.”
b. “There is nothing wrong with my behavior.”
c “I like to be the center of attention.”
d. “I knew I can’t accept that award for my brother.”
49. Which of the following behavior modification techniques is useful in the treatment of the phobias?
a. Aversion therapy
b. Irritation or modeling
c. Positive reinforcement
d. Systematic desensitization
50.A client suspected of haying a posttraumatic stress disorder should assessed for which of the following problems?
a. Eating disorder
d. “Sundown” syndrome
51. Which of the following psychological symptoms would the nurse expect to find in a hospitalized client who is the only survivor of a train accident?
52. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of survivor guilt?
a. “I think I can see the purpose of my survival”
b. “I can’t help but feel that everything is their fault.”
c. “I new understand why I’m not able to forgive myself.”
d. “I wish I could stop sabotaging my family relationships”
53. The effectiveness of monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitor drug therapy in a client with posttraumatic stress disorder can be demonstrated by which of the following client self-reports?
a. “I’m sleeping better and don’t have nightmares”
b. “I’m not losing my temper as much.”
c. “I’ve lost my craving for alcohol.”
d. “I’ve lost my phobia for water.”
54. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect when talking about school to a child diagnosed with a generalized anxiety disorder?
a. The child has been fighting with peers for the past month.
b. The child can’t stop lying to parents and teachers.
c. The child has gained 15 pounds in the past month.
d. The child expresses concerns about grades.
55. A 42-year-old client admitted with an acute myocardial infarction asks to see his chart. What should the nurse do first?
a. Allow the client to view his chart
b. Contact the supervisor and physician for approval
c. Ask the client if he has concerns about his care
d. Tell the client that he isn’t permitted to view his chart.
56. A staff nurse influences the behaviors of her colleagues by guiding and encouraging them. She’s an excellent role model but has no formal authority over her peers. This nurse is demonstrating characteristics of which of the following roles?
57. A client with paranoid personality disorder tells a nurse of his decision to stop talking to his wife. Which of the following areas should be assessed?
a. The client’s doubts about the partner’s loyalty.
b. The client’s need to be alone and have time for self.
c. The client’s decision to separate from the marital partner.
d. The client’s fears about becoming too much like the partner.
58. The wife of the client diagnosed with paranoid personality disorder tells the client she wants a divorce. When discussing this situation with the couple, which of the following factors would help the nurse form a care plan for this couple?
a. Denied grief
b. Intense jealousy
c. Exploitation of others
d. Self-destructive tendencies
59. The nurse manager is concerned because she received many time-off requests from her staff for the upcoming holiday season. She has come up with several possible solutions to the staffing dilemma and has scheduled a staff meeting to present ideas to the staff. Which management style is this manager demonstrating?
60. Which of the following short-term goals for a client with an antisocial personality disorder and a history of polysubstance abuse?
a. Develop goals for personal improvement.
b. Identify situations that are out of the client’s control.
c. Encourage the client to identify traumatic life events.
d. Learn to express feelings in a nondestructive manner.
61. Which of the following goals is most appropriate for a client with antisocial personality disorder with a high risk .for violence directed at others?
a. The client will discuss the desire to hurt others rather than act.
b. The client will be given something to destroy to displace the anger.
c. The client will develop a list of resources to use when anger escalates.
d. The client will understand the difference between anger and physical symptoms.
62. A registered nurse who works in the preoperative area of the operating room notices that a client is scheduled for a partial mastectomy and axillary lymph node removal the following week. The nurse should make sure, that the client is well educated about her surgery by:
a. taking with the nursing staff at the physician’s office to find out what the client has been taught and her level of understanding
b. making sure that the post-anesthesia recovery unit nurses know what to teach the patient before discharge
c. providing all of the preoperative teaching before surgery
d. having the post-operative nurses teach the patient because she’ll be too anxious before surgery
63. A new nurse-manager is trying to determine the best way to implement client teaching in her outpatient surgical center. She decides to gather data from other surgical centers and compare their teaching methods to her center’s methods. Which quality improvement process is she utilizing?
b. Risk management
c. Performance improvement
d. Quality management
64. Which of the following characteristics or situations is indicated when a client with borderline personality disorders has a crisis?
a. Antisocial behavior
b. Suspicious behavior
c. Relationship problems
d. Auditory hallucinations
65. A schizophrenic client tells his primary nurse that he’s scheduled to meet the King of Samoa at a special time, making it impossible for the client to leave his room for dinner. Which of the following responses by the nurse is most appropriate?
a. “It’s meal time. Let’s go so you can eat.”
b. “The King of Samoa told me to take you to dinner”
c. “Your physician expects you to follow the unit’s schedule.”
d. “People who don’t eat, on this unit aren’t being cooperative.”
66.A Client diagnosed with schizophrenia several years ago tells the nurse that he feels “very sad.” The nurse observes that he’s smiling when he says it. Which of the following terms best describes the nurse’s observation?
a. Inappropriate affect
d. Inappropriate mood
67. Which of the following conditions or characteristics is related to the cluster of symptoms associated with disorganized schizophrenia?
a. Odd beliefs
b. Flat affect
c. Waxy flexibility
d. Systematized delusions
68. A client approaches a nurse and tells her that he hears a voice telling him that he’s evil and deserves to die. Which of the following terms describes the client’s perception?
b. Disorganized speech
d. Idea of reference
69. Which of the following numbers of members in a therapy group is ideal?
a. 1 to 4
b. 4 to 7
c. 7 to 10
70. Which of the following nursing diagnosis is most appropriate for a client with acute schizophrenic reaction?
a. Social isolation related to impaired ability to trust
b. Impaired mobility related to fear of hostile impulses
c. Disturbed steep patterns related to impaired thinking ability
d. Risk for other-directed violence related to perceptual distortions
71. A client tells a nurse voices are telling him to do “terrible things.” Which of the following actions is part of the initial therapy?
a. Find out what the voices are telling him.
b. Let him go to his room to decrease his anxiety.
c. Begin talking to the client about an unrelated topic.
d. Tell the client the voices aren’t real.
72. A client is preoccupied with his belief that the CIA has been planning to take him away to save the agency from his influence. These delusions are a defense against which of the following underlying feelings?
73.1n preparation for discharge, a client diagnosed with schizophrenia was taught self-symptom management as part of a relapse prevention program. Which of the following statements indicates a client understands symptom monitoring?
a. “When I hear voices, I become afraid I’ll relapse.”
b. “My parents aren’t involved enough to be aware if I begin to relapse.”
c. “My family is more protected from stress if J keep them out of my illness process.”
d. “When I’m feeling stressed, I go to a quiet room by myself and do imagery.”
74. A client diagnosed with schizophrenia has been taking haloperidol (Haldol) for 1 week when a nurse observes that the client’s eyeball is fixated on the ceiling. Which of the following specific conditions is the client exhibiting?
b. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
c. Oculogyric crisis
d. Tardive dyskinesia
75. A client arrives in the emergency room and is assessed by a nurse. The client is staggering, confused, and verbally abusive. The client complaints of a headache from drinking alcohol and is asking for medication. The nurse explains to the – client that the physician will need to perform an assessment prior to the, administration of medication. When the client becomes verbally abusive, the nurse obtains leather restrains and threatens to place the client in the restraints. With which of the following can the client legally charge the nurse as a result of the nursing action?
d. invasion of privacy
76. A registered nurse arrives at work and is told to report (float) to the intensive care unit (ICU) for the day because the ICU is understaffed and needs additional nurses to care for the clients. The nurse has never worked in the ICU. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing action?
a. Refuse to float to the ICU
b. Call the hospital lawyer
c. Call the nursing supervisor
d. Report to the ICU and identify tasks that can be safely performed
77. A nurse who works on the night shift enters the unit and finds a coworker with a tourniquet wrapped around the upper arm. The coworker is about to insert a needle, attached to a syringe containing a clear liquid, into the antecubital area. The most appropriate initial action by the nurse is which of the following?
a. Call the police
b. Call security
c. Lock the coworker in the medication room until help is obtained
d. Call the nursing supervisor
78. Which of the following interventions is important for a client who engages in sexual act with animals (zoophilia)?
a. Place the client is the seclusion room.
b. Assess triggers that stimulate the behaviors.
c. Have the primary health care provide order and antidepressant medication.
d. Counsel the client not to discuss his sexual behaviors with anyone.
79. A 38-year-old woman was returning home from the store late one evening and was sexually assaulted. When she’s brought to the emergency department, she’s crying. Which of the following concerns for this client should be the nurse’s first priority?
a. Filing a police report
b. Calling the client’s family
c. Encouraging the client to enroll in a self-defense class
d. Remaining with the client and assisting her through the crisis
80. Which of the following therapies may be used with a client who admits to frottage?
a. Electroconvulsive therapy
b. Relaxation therapy
c. Administration of psychotic agents
d. Positive reinforcement and group therapy
81. When working with a client with paraphiliac disorder, which of the following goals is appropriate for the client?
a. To attend all meetings on the unit
b. To use triggers to initiate sexual behaviors
c. To inform his employer of the reason for hospitalization
d. To verbalize appropriate methods to meet sexual upon discharge
82. When assessing rooms for clients, the nurse should not place which of the following clients with a client who has a diagnosis of sexual sadism?
a. A client with a diagnosis of sexual masochism
b. A client with a diagnosis of voyeurism
c. A client who’s an exhibitionist
d. A client who’s a homosexual
83. The nurse is obtaining a health history from a client when he states he has been diagnosed with voyeurism. The nurse knows which of the following actions is characteristic of a voyeur?
a. Observing others while they disrobe
b. Wearing clothing of the opposite sex
c. Rubbing against a no consenting person
d. Using rubber sheeting for sexual arousal
84. Which of the following definitions best describes necrophilia?
a. Obscene phone calling
b. Sexual activity with animals
c. Sexual activity with corpses
d. Sexual arousal by contact with urine
85. A study describing the evaluation of aseptjc technique would be which type of study?
86. If a bill has been approved by the joint conference Committee of Congress, This means that:
a. The bill is now a law
b. The bill will be sent to the President of the Philippines
c. The bill will be discussed by the senators and the congressman, for its merit
d. The bill will be print out and distributed
87. A 39-year-ofd mate wishes to undergo a sex-reassignment operation, because ‘he feels trapped in his male body. Which of the following actions is the next step the client should take if he wants to have the operations?
a. Tell his family and friends
b. Attend psychotherapy
c. Visit transsexual bars
d. See a surgeon
88. A 35-year-old male who has been married-for 10 years arrives in the psychiatric clinic stating, “I can’t live this lie any more. I wish I were a woman, I don’t want my wife. I need a man.” Which of the following initial actions would be most appropriate from the nurse?
a. Call the primary health care provider.
b. Encourage the client to speak to his wife.
c. Have the client admitted.
d. Sit down with the client, and talk about his feelings.
89 A female client enjoys wearing men’s clothing. Her sister tells the nurse that the client wishes a sexual reassignment operation. The client tells the nurse she just wants to be left. Which of the following initial nursing interventions is most appropriate?
a. Allow the client to deal with her sister.
b. Encourage the client to verbalize her feelings.
c. Tell the client’s sister to mind her own business.
d. Encourage the client to continue doing what is comfortable for her.
90. A male client brings a list of his prescribed medications to the clinic. During the initial assessment, he tells the nurse that he has been experiencing delayed ejaculation. Which drug class is associated with this problem?
91. A client in a psychiatric unit has been identified as peeping Tom. What’s the medical term for the client’s disorder?
b. Gender identity disorder
92. Mrs. Peralta was also issued a professional license by the Professional Regulation Commision. It is a:
1. A permanent right
2. A vested interest
3. A legal right
4. A privilege
5. Means to protect society and promote general welfare
93. Nursing Resolution concerning with 1.V. Training Program:
a. N. R. #1955 Series 1989
b. N. R.# 557 Series 1988
c. N. R. #08 Series 1994
d. N. R. # 633 Series 1984
94. The devise or technique an investigator employs to collect data is called:
95. Being an I. V. Licensed Nurse, it is renewed?
a. every 2 years
b. every 6 months
c. it depends
d. no renewal at all
96. A nurse lawyer provides an education session to the nursing staff regarding client’s rights. A staff nurse asks the lawyer to describe an example that might relate to invasion of client privacy. Which of the following indicates a violation of the right?
a. Taking photographs of the client without consent
b. Telling the client that he or she cannot leave the hospital
c. Threatening to place the client in restraints
d. Performing a surgical procedure without consent
97. If found to be telling the truth, the nurse may be released right away. The fact That morphine sulfate was meant to be given to a relative as prescribed by a licensed physician considered to be a
a. Justifying circumstances
98. Example of intentional torts includes:
a. malpractice and assault
b. malpractice and negligence
c. false imprisonment and battery
d. negligence and invasion of privacy
99. In a certain hospital whenever there are patients in the recovery room, 2 nurses are usually present. The hospital policy expects the nurses to take their breaks before patients arrive from surgery. On this particular day, there are 2 nurses on duty and 2 patients in the recovery room who have had minor surgeries performed that morning. One nurse had not had a coffee break that morning. The nurse should:
a. Stay because hospital policy expects there to be two nurses in attendance while there are patients in the recovery room.
b. Leave for coffee break because there are only 2 patients in the recovery room and one nurse can handle 2 patients quite easily.
c. Talk with the nursing supervisor and secure permission from him/her.
d. Leave to get coffee and come right back.
100. A client with anorexia nervosa has started taking flouxetine hydrochloride (Prozac). Which of the following adverse reactions complicates the treatment of this eating disorder?
b. Dry mouth